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Softball. Force Play at First

2016/7/15 17:20:38


Question
I was umping a camp game of high school age boys when there was a throw to first that would have ended the game. We only use a single base so the first baseman may be in the runners way. The runner ended up colliding with the first baseman(who was standing directly on the base and was half the runners size) and sent him flying and upon landing on the ground the first baseman dropped the ball. In this particular case there were 2 possible scenarios and questions. Case#1 The batter beat the throw (as I ruled) and then knocked over the first baseman causing him to drop the ball, would the ball still be in play, allowing other baserunners to score? Case# 2 The ball beat the runner by a nose and then the collision causing the ball to be dropped, is the runner instantly out or does the first base man has to have possession for a specific amount of time? (As mentioned we did not have a double base)
I would appreciate your response.
Thank You
Ronald K.

Answer
My ruling is malacious contact, runner out for interference other runners reset to the base occupied at the time of the pitch.  Intent has nothing to do with this ruling.  Just the force of the contact.

To answer your questions directly

Case 1 yes
Case 2 F3 has to demonstrate control of the ball, no specific amount of time is needed.  This is a judgement call.  But I think you stated in a round about way that he did have control.  The ball beat the runner, you already stated that F3 caught the ball and it was the collision that caused the ball to come loose.

I won't give this to the offense unless a bad throw pulled F3 into the batter/runners path and the BR had very little time to react to avoid the collision.

Tom
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