advancement of runners after runner hit by ball behind infielders

Question
QUESTION: Bases are loaded with no outs, ball is hit to the first baseman who commits an error by allowing the ball to pass between his legs, untouched, strikes the runner from first on the foot.  Is the runner out even if the outfielder has a play, and what happens to the base runners at second and third base?

ANSWER: Hi Kevin,

Once a batted ball has passed an infielder (exc the F1) the runner is not out unless another player has an opportunity to make an out. It must be a legitimate opportunity to make an out. I would find it difficult that the RF could have an opportunity to make an out, so on this play I would have nothing.

IF we were to call R3 out, the ball is dead, runners return to the last base touched at the time and the b-r is awarded 1st base.

Mark

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: To follow up on my question and clear up the wording that is stated in the rule book, I have one more question.  In the rule book it states that all the runners Not Forced by the batter-runner to advance must go back to the base they last touched.  If the bases are loaded, would that make all runners to be forced to move, or does the hit batter eliminate the force?  The wording in the rule book is not clear, in my opinion, since all runners are forced to move on a ground ball.

Answer
Hi Kevin

If R3 were to be called out it removes the force on R1 and R2 and w/ interference all runners return to the last base touched at the time of the interference.

Force out definition...FORCE OUT: Is an out which may be made only when a runner loses the right to the base that the runner is occupying because the batter becomes a batter-runner,
and before the batter-runner or a trailing runner has been put out.

Mark