force out or tag out

Question
QUESTION: With a runner on first, batter hits ground ball to pitcher. Pitcher throws ball to 1st base for the force out. 1st baseman throws ball to 2nd base who steps on base but does not tag runner. Is the force out removed because the first out was at first base?

ANSWER: Hi Gary,

"Is the force out removed because the first out was at first base?"  

Gary that would be correct. R1 is initially no longer legally entitled to occupy 1st base (forced from the base) but once the b-r is retired, R1 is now capable of legally occupying 1st again and must be tagged for the out no matter what base they are trying to acquire.

mark



---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Would the umpire automatically make the call at second base, or does it have to be appealed before the next pitch in order for the umpire to make a ruling?

Answer
Hi Gary,

I'm sorry I don't understand your question.  What call are you talking about?  I have no call on R1 unless they are tagged before safely acquiring either base (1st or 2nd). and then we have an out call. If R1 simply acquires 2nd (or 1st) they would be safe and since there was no play, no call.

Let me know if I misunderstood.
Mark