Over and Back violation
Question
My question has to do with the Over and Back Violation. Team-A has the ball in the frontcourt, and makes an errant pass that ends up in the backcourt. Another Team-A player and a Team-B player begin chasing for the ball. The Team-A player touches the ball in the backcourt first and the ref calls a foul against the Team-B player that occurred after the Team-A player first touched it in the backcourt. The Refs explanation to me was that it was not an over and back violation because the Team-A player had not gotten possession of the ball before he was fouled. Was this the right call or should it have been an over and back violation?
Answer
Cody,
This is a great question. Possession is not necessary in order for a Back Court Violation to occur. Simply being the first player to touch the ball in the back court is in itself a violation. In this scenario, no player from Team A is allowed to touch the ball in the back court before any team B player touches it first. The violation should have been called, and the play dead. Had the official blown his/her whistle, Team B probably wouldn't have committed a foul. The official made the wrong the call and in addition gave a wrong explanation.
Thank you for the question.
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