Questionable call

Question
On Sunday of this week my son was involved in a Babe Ruth game. Here's what happened. Bases were loaded and there were no outs. Left handed batter, batting. The runner on third decides to steal home. ( why he does this I am not sure). Anyway while running down the baseline in fair territory the batter stikes the ball and hits the runner. The ump calls dead ball and the runner is called out. I agree with this. the ball goes foul. I explain to the 2 umps that the batter should still get the base. they said no, as the ball went foul. I explained that regardless of where the ball went, the play is dead, it's a fair ball and the batter should still receive first base. What is the correct call?  

Answer
Fred,

If the umpires believe the runner intentionally interfered with the play, both the runner and the batter are out.  If they believe the runner did not intentionally interfere, then your ruling above is correct.

The place in the major league rulebook that discusses this issue is in section 7.08 (b) and (f).

Hope this helps!

Brian